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[REBOL] Re: Reflectivity: How a function can know its own name ?

From: sunandadh:aol at: 27-Mar-2002 4:05

> Thanks for your answer. In your examples you show that in SOME cases, the > name concept can be a problem. But It would seem logical for me that the > system implements an instruction for a function to know its own name when
> is possible.
I agree. I used the term "problematic concept" when referring to the "name" of a function, because it's a problem for Rebol (which often can't tell for reasons already stated), developers (who know when a function has a name, and just want to get hold of it) and support staff (who want precisely pinpointed error information when code fails -- including, of course, the current function name, if there is one). Someone (sorry I can't find the original post to credit you) came up with a method of finding the function name -- if it exists -- by forcing an error and grabbing the 'where value from the error object. This shows that the name of a function -- where it exists -- is available. It's a pity that it isn't more easily accessible. You could always encapsulate the code below into a function-name? word, and then ask RT to make it native for speed, Here's some sample code based on the half-remembered post. You'll see some of the problematic issues for an unnamed function. But if your functions -- like most of mine -- have a name, this may work for you. myfunc1: func [] [ print ["my name is " get in disarm try [0 / 0 ] 'where ] ] myfunc1 ;; name of function identical to func1 myfunc2: :myfunc1 myfunc2 ;; name of function in a block -- various forms myfuncs: copy [] loop 5 [append myfuncs :myfunc1] foreach f myfuncs [f] for nn 1 length? myfuncs 1 [myfuncs/:nn] for nn 1 length? myfuncs 1 [do pick myfuncs nn] myfuncs/4 ;; name of function in an object myobj: make object! [objfunc: ""] myobj/objfunc: :func1 myobj/objfunc Sunanda